GreekIslandGirl wrote:Don't equivocate and make stuff up, stud.
You firmly stated Linear A was "non-Greek" and I am the one who pointed out to you there is no evidence to state this as fact!
You then ventured it might be Semitic or Sanskrit. Two languages from different origins. And again, with ZERO evidence to support such a thing. Indeed, I was the one pointing out to you how little we know.
What we do know is that:
(a) Linear A has been found in dozens of locations.
(b) All these locations are within the narrow confines of the the Greek world.
(c) so far, no sources of Linear A have been found anywhere else in the world!
How, then, can anyone who considers himself logical run around declaring that Linear A is probably Semitic or Sanskrit?
By what logic?
Just because you read someone else's opinion, it doesn't make it fact!
Furthermore, I offered the possibility that Linear A does not represent sounds, as in a spoken language, but is a collection of
symbols with meanings such as we have for the infinity symbol or highway codes or suchlike and this could be supported by the fact Linear A is often found in votive offerings and discs such as that from Phaistos. This is a postulate.
I don't have to argue - the facts are mounting and the facts confirm the Classical historical framework supported by academics and ridicule the revisionists supported by Imperialists/Turks.
you are making yourself look stupid with your deliberate misreadings of my position, which is down right intellectually dishonest, and where you have once again failed to address the anachronism of 700 years in your argument, nor otherwise deal substantively let alone objectively with the arguments, but are relying on your own hellenistic reviosionism.
The Locations where LInear A has been found correspond to areas with which the Minoans were known to have links. That may well overlap geographically with what
later became the Greek World, starting at about the time that Linear A fell out of use, but not chronologically, bearing in mind the point you have failed to address is that according to the main sources (Dr PS Costas and the like) Greek as a language did not exist until at the earliest 2000 BC, and there was no contact between the Minoan Civilisation and Greek speakers until about 1700, evidenced by that being about the time LInear A tablets can be identified as arriving in mainland Greece, when they had by that time been in use in Crete for 700 years, without any Greek Influence.
Rather you adopt a very flexible view of what is Greek, in particular from a chronological point of view, which ignores History.
You have in that respect produced not one shred of reasoned rational argument let alone supported with evidence that the Minoans spoke Greek. Indeed the article posted by the You as the OP itself states that the current prevailing Hypothesis (out of several) is that Minoan was not an Indo-Europeen language. Other commentators have suggested that Minoans may have spoken some form of an Indo-europen language, including
related to Sanskrit
, so my recognition that there are varying schools of thought (and where you once again willfully selectively quote or otherwise seek to misconstrue my position with thinks I never said ) is not a contradiction but represents balance and openness, as opposed to your closed mind on the topic.
The other alternative is that if you cannot understand the points I am making teehn you really are of limited intellect.
Your efforts to construe the Linear A as expressing concepts or thoughts appears to be original thought by you, - IN OTHER WORDS YOU ARE MAKING IT UP AS YOU GO ALONG since again there is no reference to any Academic debate in support of your theory.
Rather, because the bile boiling inside in you directed at seeking to discredit me, you have parted company with mainstream thought and are flailing. Your attempted politicising the debate by reference to imperialists /Turkish views really shows how pathetic you are, Madam!
So once again answer me this.
If as recognised by most academics Greek as language did not exist until 2000BC at the earliest, before developing in mainland Greece, and where according to prevailing thought there was no contact between the Greek speakers and the Minoans until 1700 BC, but the Minoan Civilisation with Linear A tablets existed since 2500 BC or so, how was it the Minoans could have spoken and Linear A represented a language which did not exist, and where in any event according to prevailing thought Minoan was not an Indo-European language, as Greek is?
ANSWER, WITH EVIDENCE/REFERENCE, OR STFU!
