In the UK, Leasehold properties are very common. Effectively you "own" a flat or house, might have a mortgage on it, and pay a small rent or lease to the Freehold owner. The Freehold owner is obviously free to remortgage the property or sell the Freehold on to a third party.
Isn't this basically what the moaning Brits are doing with living/holidaying in a property which they assume is "Freehold", but in actual fact is "Leasehold" (by a different name?) from the Developers which still own the land?
(Re-posted by encouragement from BigDutch






